Solution:

146900

Explanation:
Whenever you face such type of questions, it is wise to begin from the last thing. Here in this question the last thing will be the 9th temple. He climbed down 100 steps and thus you know, he had Rs. 100 before beginning climbing down. Thus, he must have offered Rs. 100 to the god in that temple too (he offered half of the total amount). Also, he must have dropped Rs. 100 while climbing the steps of the ninth temple. This means that he had Rs. 300 before he begand climbing the steps of the ninth temple.

Now, we will calculate in the similar manner for each of the temples backwards.
Before the devotee climbed the eight temple: (300+100)*2 + 100 = 900
Before the devotee climbed the seventh temple: (900+100)*2 + 100 = 2100
Before the devotee climbed the Sixth temple: (2100+100)*2 + 100 = 4300
Before the devotee climbed the fifth temple: (4300+100)*2 + 100 = 8900
Before the devotee climbed the fourth temple: (8900+100)*2 + 100 = 18100
Before the devotee climbed the third temple: (18100+100)*2 + 100 = 36,500
Before the devotee climbed the second temple: (36500+100)*2 + 100 = 73300
Before the devotee climbed the first temple: (73300+100)*2 + 100 = 146900

Therefore, the devotee had Rs. 146900 with him initially.

Solution:

23rd day

1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 5 + 6 + 7 + 8 + 9 + 10 + 11 + 12 + 13 + 14 + 15 + 16 + 17 + 18 + 19 + 20 + 21 + 22 + 23 = 276

Thus our anniversary falls on the 23rd day of the month.

You can apply other formulas to shorten the process but that is the simplest way to do it.

Solution:

The integer with the special property is -1.

To test the property, let us subtract any digit from it, let's say 5.

-1 - 5 = -6

The succeeding digit of 5 is 6.

When (-6) is divided by 6, it is completely divided.

For all other numbers as well, this stands true.

Solution:

7 Trips

Explanation:
Send 2+5+9 = 16
Bring back 9
Send 3+4+9 = 16
Bring back 9
Send 1+7+8 = 16
Bring back 1
Send 1+6+9 = 16

Solution:

60%

Explanation:
In all such cases where you have to find out the probability of anything with an already given situation, you have to use the formula for conditional probability.

In this case, you have to find out the probability that the second test was passed by a student given that he passed the first test already.

Therefore, P(Second/First) = P (First and Second)/ P (First)
= 0.25/0.42
=0.60
=60 %

Solution:

2nd

When the cylinder is spun for the first and last time, the following six outcomes are possible:

First:
First chamber is fired first. The first player loses.

Second:
Second chamber is fired first. The first player loses.

Third:
Third chamber is fired first. The first player loses.

Fourth:
Fourth chamber is fired first. The second player loses. (First shot, player 1, chamber 4 empty. Second shot player 2, chamber 5, empty. Third shot player 1, chamber 6 empty. Fourth shot player 2, chamber 1 not empty.)

Fifth:
Fifth chamber is fired first. The first player loses. (First shot, player 1, chamber 5 empty. Second shot player 2, chamber 6, empty. Third shot player 1, chamber 1 not empty.)

Sixth:
Sixth chamber is fired first. The second player loses. (First shot, player 1, chamber 6 empty. Second shot, player 2, chamber 1, not empty)

Thus, if you analyze, you will find that the second player has a 4/6 chance of winning. Therefore if you want to win the game, going second gives you better shot at it.

Solution:

Step 5 is invalid, because we are dividing by (x-y), and since x=y, we are thus dividing by 0. This is an invalid mathematical operation (division by 0), and so by not following basic mathematical rules

Solution:

99 matches.

The number of matches will always sum up to one less than the number of players in a knock out tournament. You may calculate it in any manner. Thus 99 matches were played.

Solution:

18

Explanation:
More minutes implies more tea.
More women implies more tea.

The time become twice (3 minutes / 1.5 minutes).
women become six times (9 / 1.5).

Number of tea = 2 * 6 * Original(1.5)
= 18

Solution:

1/3

Explanation
Assuming T1 is the Toy for brother1, T2 is the toy for brother2 and T3 is the toy for brother3.

Following are the possible cases for toys distribution:

Boy1 Boy2 Boy3
T1 T2 T3
T1 T3 T2
T2 T1 T3
T2 T3 T1 .... (A)
T3 T1 T2 .... (B)
T3 T2 T1

In both steps (A) & (B), no one gets the correct toy.
Therefore probability that none brother can get the own toy is 2/6 = 1/3