Solution:

20(Twenty) : when you write them , these are only numbers having vowel 'E'

Solution:

36 meters.

100/v1 = 80/v2
100/v2 = 80/v3

20+(20/v2)*v3=20+16 = 36

Solution:

30,450 miles.

Explanation:
For each 5 miles driven using this rotation, each tire will lose (2/29000)+(2/21000) of its tread.So, suppose we drive 5*N miles like this. Then, each tire will lose 2*N*((1/29000)+(1/21000)) of its tread. We wish to determine N so that the latter expression gets to be 1, representing all of each tire's tread. That happens when N=6090, which is when 5*N (the total miles driven) is 30,450.

Solution:

The check was for dollars 31.63.

The bank teller gave her dollars 63.31
She spent .05, and then she had dollars 63.26, which is twice the check.

Let x be the dollars of the check, and y be the cent.

The check was for 100x + y cent
He was given 100y + x cent

Also
100y + x - 5 = 2(100x + y)
Expanding this out and rearranging, we find:
98y = 199x + 5

or 199x ≡ -5 (mod 98)
or 98*2*x + 3x ≡ -5 (mod 98)
3x ≡ -5 ≡ 93 (mod 98)
this quickly leads to x = 31

Solution:

1/2

one of two is the possibility
1. If any of the first 99 people sit in Abhishek seat, Abhishek will not get to sit in his own seat.
2. If any of the first 99 people sit in Aishwarya's seat, Abhishek will get to sit in his seat.

Solution:

The only lockers that remain open are perfect squares (1, 4, 9, 16, etc) because they are the only numbers divisible by an odd number of whole numbers; every factor other than the number's square root is paired up with another. Thus, these lockers will be 'changed' an odd number of times, which means they will be left open. All the other numbers are divisible by an even number of factors and will consequently end up closed.

So the number of open lockers is the number of perfect squares less than or equal to one thousand. These numbers are one squared, two squared, three squared, four squared, and so on, up to thirty one squared. (Thirty two squared is greater than one thousand, and therefore out of range.) So the answer is thirty one.

Solution:

A parachute that didn't open.

Solution:

1:1 (approx)

Explanation:
We know that the probability of having a boy or having a girl is same and thus, half of the couples will stop after having a boy child. Half of the others will have a girl and will have a baby again. Out of those half of the couples, half will have a boy and will stop and half will have a girl again. This will keep on going like this.

Now, if there are X number of couples, there will be X boys.

1/2 have a boy and stop: 0 girls
1/4 have a girl, then a boy: X/4 girls
1/8 have 2 girls, then a boy: 2*X/8 girls
1/16 have 3 girls, then a boy: 3*X/16 girls
1/32 have 4 girls, then a boy: 4*X/32 girls
…
Total: X boys and
1X 2X 3X 4X
– + – + – + — +… = ~X

Therefore, the proportion of boys to girls will be extremely close to 1:1

Solution:

XIX is the answer which refers to nineteen in roman numeric system. On taking out one i.e. I, we will get XX that is equal to twenty.

Solution:

Michelangelo juggles the diamonds across while crossing the bridge.