Solution:

Consider each term as a description of the preceding term. The first term is one '1':11. The second term is two times '1':21.

Let us write the series in the above manner
One 1: 11
Two 1s: 21
One 2 and one 1: 1211
One 1, one 2 and two 1s: 111221
Three 1s, two 2s and one 1: 312211

Hence the next term is 312211

Solution:

Just One!

example
If u get Blue rock with label as "blue+red" => this is red as all labels are wrong.
In this way u can logically solve this puzzle.

Solution:

Solution can be verified from the picture below.

Solution:

The answer is very simple. All she had to do is take the fifteen cards from the top and reverse them. This would make another pile out of that and there will be two piles - one of 15 cards and one of 37 cards. Also both of them will have the same number of inverted cards.

Just think about it and if the mathematical explanation will help you understand better, here it is.
Assume that there were p inverted cards initially in the top 15 cards. Then the remaining 37 cards will hold 15-p inverted cards.
Now when she reverses the 15 cards on the top, the number of inverted cards will become 15-p and thus the number of inverted cards in both of the piles will become same.

Solution:

9

Explanation:
2 < 3 < 5
To find out the required number of candies, take one in place of the least number (i.e. take one mango candy) and then add all the greater numbers (i.e. three strawberry and five pineapple candies) to it.

Required number of balls = 1 + 3 + 5 = 9.

Solution:

It has been clearly mentioned that all the boxes are labeled incorrectly. If he opens the Box3, then he will get either Dark Chocolates or Milk Chocolates as it is labeled incorrectly. Let us suppose he finds Dark Chocolates in there. Now since all are labeled incorrectly, Box B A must contain Milk Chocolates and Box B must contain Milk Chocolates and Dark Chocolates.

Solution:

Think deeply about the door number 56, people will visit it for every divisor it has. So 56 has 1 & 56, 2 & 28, 4 & 14, 7 & 8. So on pass 1, the 1st person will open the door; pass 2, 2nd one will close it; pass 4, open; pass 7, close; pass 8, open; pass 14, close; pass 28, open; pass 56, close.
Thus we can say that the door will just end up back in its original state for each pair of divisor. But what about the cases in which the pair of divisor has analogous number for example door number 16? 16 has the divisors 1 & 16, 2 & 8, 4&4. But 4 is recurrent because 16 is a perfect square, so you will only visit door number 16, on pass 1, 2, 4, 8 and 16… leaving it open at the end. So only perfect square doors will remain open at the end.

Solution:

It can be solve as shown below.

Solution:

1 2 3 4 5 6 and 7 8 6

Since summation of numbers 1-9(1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9) is 45 , so its impossible to divide into two equal parts.
Since we cant flip over 6 to make it 9 but we can flip 9 to make it 6 and hence the solution

Solution:

David to play second

Explanation:
Let's suppose that David plays first and he picks 9. Then Albert will definitely pick 8. Now, David will have to pick 7 or Albert will pick 7 in his turn. But if David picks up 7, then he will score 16 that is beyond 15 and will lose. So one thing is for sure, no one will be willing to start with the highest digits.

Suppose David plays first and picks up 1, Albert will pick 2. Then David will pick 3 and Albert will pick 4. Now David will be forced to pick 9. The score is 6 to 13 and thus David will have no chance of winning.

If David Picks 9 after Albert has picked up 2, then Albert will pick 8 and the score will become 10 to 10. Thus David will pick 3 as picking 7 will send him past 15. Now Albert will pick 4 and David has nothing to pick for winning. Thus Albert wins.

Therefore, you should suggest David to play second.

Solution:

2 degree below zero