Solution:

1/3

This is a famous question in understanding conditional probability, which simply means that given some information you might be able to get a better estimate.

The following are possible combinations of two children that form a sample space in any earthly family:

Boy - Girl
Girl - Boy
Boy - Boy
Girl - Girl

Since we know one of the children is a boy, we will drop the girl-girl possibility from the sample space.
This leaves only three possibilities, one of which is two boys. Hence the probability is 1/3

Solution:

101/125

Explanation:
This is an extremely tricky question. You have to find the probability where all of them have same number in mind. But if you try to do that, you will have to do a lot of calculations and utilize your brain plenty much. However, the trick to do this question is something opposite. We are not implying that you won’t get answer by directly calculating the probabilities, but it will take much time.

However, if you just go on calculating the negative probabilities, then you can simply subtract it from 1 to find the positive probability. Let us begin the operations and not confuse you further more.

Let us take two friends in the beginning. The probability that Adam and Bella don’t have the same number in their respective mind will be 4/5.

Now let us include Christopher in the scene. The probability that Christopher don’t have a digit same as either Adam or Bella will be 3/5.

Let us now include Drew as well. The probability that she does not have any number in mind which is same as either Adam or Bella or Christopher will be 2/5.

Now the combined probability that none of them has the same number in mind will be:
4/5 * 3/5 * 2/5 = 24/125

Now the probability that they have same number in mind will be:
1 – 24/125 = 101/125

Solution:

60%

Explanation:
In all such cases where you have to find out the probability of anything with an already given situation, you have to use the formula for conditional probability.

In this case, you have to find out the probability that the second test was passed by a student given that he passed the first test already.

Therefore, P(Second/First) = P (First and Second)/ P (First)
= 0.25/0.42
=0.60
=60 %

Solution:

0%

Explanation:
1) why cant be 1/4 : If the answer is 1/4, then as we know two out of four answer choices is '1/4', the answer has be 1/2.
This is a contradiction, so the answer cannot be 1/4.

2) why cant be 1/2 : If the answer is 1/2 then because answer:"1/2" is 1 out of 4 answer choices, the answer must be 1/4. This is also a contradiction. So the answer cannot be 1/2.

3) why cant be 1 : If the answer is 1 then because answer:"1" is 1 out of 4 answer choices, the answer must be 1/4. Again the same contradiction and therefore answer cannot be 1.

Solution:

Hussey should have Amy Hussey pull the trigger again without spinning.

We know that the first chamber Amy Hussey fired was one of the four empty chambers. Since the bullets were placed in consecutive order, one of the empty chambers is followed by a bullet, and the other three empty chambers are followed by another empty chamber. So if Hussey has Amy Hussey pull the trigger again, the probability that a bullet will be fired is 1/4.

If Amy Hussey spins the chamber again, the probability that she shoots Hussey would be 2/6, or 1/3, since there are two possible bullets that would be in firing position out of the six possible chambers that would be in position.

Solution:

Put one black rock in one sack and put all the rest in the other one. In such manner you will get about 3/4 probability of surviving.

Solution:

2/3

While tossing the coins in this case only two cases are favorable:

1) A1 (H) A2 (H)

2) A2 (H) A1 (H)

3) B1 (H) B2 (T)

4) B2 (T) B1 (H)

Since the fourth case is not feasible, the probability is 2/3.

Solution:

1/2

one of two is the possibility
1. If any of the first 99 people sit in Abhishek seat, Abhishek will not get to sit in his own seat.
2. If any of the first 99 people sit in Aishwarya's seat, Abhishek will get to sit in his seat.

Solution:

1:1 (approx)

Explanation:
We know that the probability of having a boy or having a girl is same and thus, half of the couples will stop after having a boy child. Half of the others will have a girl and will have a baby again. Out of those half of the couples, half will have a boy and will stop and half will have a girl again. This will keep on going like this.

Now, if there are X number of couples, there will be X boys.

1/2 have a boy and stop: 0 girls
1/4 have a girl, then a boy: X/4 girls
1/8 have 2 girls, then a boy: 2*X/8 girls
1/16 have 3 girls, then a boy: 3*X/16 girls
1/32 have 4 girls, then a boy: 4*X/32 girls
…
Total: X boys and
1X 2X 3X 4X
– + – + – + — +… = ~X

Therefore, the proportion of boys to girls will be extremely close to 1:1