Solution:

1653

Explanation:
For an ideal case, the batsman will hit a six on each ball. But if he hits six on the last ball of the over, the strike will change in the next over. Thus, the best he can do in the last ball is run 3 runs so that he retains the strike even in the next over. Thus the total runs that he can score in each over:
6 * 5 + 3 = 33
But this will have to go like it only till the 49th over. In the last over, he can hit a six in the last ball as well as that will be the last ball of the match.
Thus runs for the last over will be 6 * 6 = 36.
Hence the maximum runs = 33 * 49 + 36 = 1653

Solution:

First fill the 8 liters jug complete - 4, 8, 0
Fill the 5 liters jug with 8 liters jug - 4, 3, 5
Pour back the beer from 5 liters jug to 12 liters jug - 9, 3, 0
Pour the 3 liters from 8 liters jug to 5 liters jug - 9, 0, 3
Fill the 8 liters jug completely from 12 liters jug - 1, 8, 3
Fill the 5 liters jug from the 8 liters jug - 1, 6, 5
Pour the entire 5 liters jug back in 12 liters jug - 6, 6, 0

You have successfully split the beer into two equal parts.

Solution:

The check was for dollars 31.63.

The bank teller gave her dollars 63.31
She spent .05, and then she had dollars 63.26, which is twice the check.

Let x be the dollars of the check, and y be the cent.

The check was for 100x + y cent
He was given 100y + x cent

Also
100y + x - 5 = 2(100x + y)
Expanding this out and rearranging, we find:
98y = 199x + 5

or 199x ≡ -5 (mod 98)
or 98*2*x + 3x ≡ -5 (mod 98)
3x ≡ -5 ≡ 93 (mod 98)
this quickly leads to x = 31

Solution:

1/36

Explanation:
The number of possibilities for the first as well as the second dice are 6 and 6 respectively. Therefore the total possibilities or outcome are 6 * 6 = 36.
Out of 36 outcomes, we need only one case i.e. the first gives 2 and the second gives 5.
Therefore, the probability will be 1 on 36 or 1/36.

Solution:

There is a simple logic to solve this question.
The size of the chocolate is 2 x 8. Thus, you need to have 2 x 8 = 16 pieces.
Every time you break the chocolate, you will get one extra piece.
Thus, to get 16 pieces, you must break it (16 - 1) = 15 times.

Solution:

888 + 88 + 8 + 8 + 8 = 1000

Solution:

The first step that they will take will be a leap of logic. What it means is that they will deduce that every color must appear twice at least. Why? Because the master logician has assured them that the puzzle will not be impossible for anyone of them. And if a color appears only once in the circle, the person wearing it will have no clue about that color which will not be fair for him.

Then the logicians will follow the same and look for all the colors of hats in the circle. If one of them sees a color just once, he can safely assume that he is also wearing the hat of the same color as by leap of logic, no color can appear just once. Thus when the bell is rung, he will leave.

In the similar fashion, if anyone sees another color just once, he can determine that he is wearing the hat of the same color and will leave when the bell rings or will be disqualified and sent home. Unvaryingly, if a color is seen twice, they will be eliminated after the first bell. Hence, there must be at least three hats of any of the remaining color.

Assume that you are sitting in the circle and you don’t see a color once but see it twice. Then if they were the only two hats of the same color, the logicians must have left at the first bell already. But they did not. Which means that there are three hats of that color and you are wearing one. Thus you will leave after the second bell.

Solution:

See the figure for the answer. Wasn't it a bit tricky?

Solution:

David to play second

Explanation:
Let's suppose that David plays first and he picks 9. Then Albert will definitely pick 8. Now, David will have to pick 7 or Albert will pick 7 in his turn. But if David picks up 7, then he will score 16 that is beyond 15 and will lose. So one thing is for sure, no one will be willing to start with the highest digits.

Suppose David plays first and picks up 1, Albert will pick 2. Then David will pick 3 and Albert will pick 4. Now David will be forced to pick 9. The score is 6 to 13 and thus David will have no chance of winning.

If David Picks 9 after Albert has picked up 2, then Albert will pick 8 and the score will become 10 to 10. Thus David will pick 3 as picking 7 will send him past 15. Now Albert will pick 4 and David has nothing to pick for winning. Thus Albert wins.

Therefore, you should suggest David to play second.

Solution:

There can be two possibilities for the given situation.

One is if I run on the perimeter. Then, the lion will eventually catch me as the lion can follow my radius and then his trajectory will be half of the circle and not a spiral. Therefore, the lion will subsequently catch me in a finite amount of time.

Secondly if I don’t run on the perimeter, then clearly, I have an infinite amount of time before the lion catches me.

Solution:

At each draw, the number of strawberry candies are either decreasing by 2 or not decreasing at all. In the case of orange candies, at each draw, they are either increasing by 1 or decreasing by 1.

Thus on an assumed outset with at least one candy in the jar to begin with, if the number of strawberry candies are 0 or are even in numbers, they will finish off leaving an orange candy at the end. If otherwise, the remaining candy will be a strawberry one.